Why is Y=mx+b considered a linear function despite failing linearity tests?

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The discussion clarifies why the equation Y=mx+b is termed a "linear function" despite failing linearity tests such as superposition and homogeneity. The term "linear" refers to the graphical representation of the function, which is a straight line, and its use in linear approximations, such as the tangent line to the sine function derived from Taylor series expansion. The distinction between linear functions and linear transformations is emphasized, with the derivative of a function providing a linear approximation near a point.

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I understand that a linear relation needs to satisfy both the property of superposition and homogeneity. Y(x)=mx+b does not satisfy both property at the same time yet any equations in this form are called a "linear function" and it is used in linear approximation.

For example, sin(x), which is a non-linear function, can be approximated as sin(x0)+cos(x0)(x-x0), where b=sin(x0), m=cos(x0) and x=(x-x0), using Taylor series expansion with the operating point x0. This expression fails the linearity test, yet it is refer as a "linear" approximation of non-linear function sin(x).

So if the form y=mx+b fails the superposition & homogeneity test, why do we consider it as a "linear function"? What I am missing here? Thank you so much!
 
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We consider y = mx + b to be a linear function because its graph is a straight line. The term "linear" when used in the context of transformations has a different meaning, as you know, with T(u + v) = T(u) + T(v), and so on.

For your example of the linear approximation of the sine function, "linear" means that the graph of the approximation is a straight line that is tangent to the sine function at x0 and has the same slope there.

It's confusing, but the context usually indicates whether what's being described is a straight line or a transformation from one vector space to another.
 
To add to what Mark44 said, observe that the derivative of a function at a point, c is a linear appoximation of f(x) - f(c). For example, let's take the function f(x) = x^2. Then let c=2 and note that f(x) - f(2) = x^2 - 4. Now, f'(2) = 4, and we see that f'(2) * (x-2) = 4x - 8. Now, let's take some number close to 2. Let's say x_0=1.98. Then, f(1.98) - f(2) = 1.98^2 - 4 = -.0796. On the other hand f'(2) * (1.98 - 2) = -.08.

OK, so how does this relate to your question? Well, we know that f(x) - f(c) \simeq f'(c) * (x-c). Therefore, we know that f(x) \simeq f'(c) * (x-c) + f(c). That is, this is a linear approximation to the value of f near x=c. So, the way I view the statement "linear approimation to f" is that the derivative is a linear function (in this case, it is just a function from R to R, that is, it is just a number that multiles other numbers) approximation to f(x) - f(c)

For example, let's keep f(x)=x^2. We know that f(1.98)=3.9204. But, using this approximation, we have f(1.98) = 4 * (1.98 - 2) + 4 = 3.92.

Now, I don't know if this is what you were looking for, but it is VERY important to realize that the derivaitve of a function at a point c is the linear apporiximation of f(x) - f(x), so, I decided to explain it.
 

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