Why limit n-> infinity (3/4)^n = 0

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Why limit n--> infinity (3/4)^n = 0

Homework Statement



Quick question. Brain flagrance.

Homework Equations



Why limit n--> infinity (3/4)^n = 0

The Attempt at a Solution



?? Why is this. How do you know.
 
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Jbreezy said:

Homework Statement



Quick question. Brain flagrance.

Homework Equations



Why limit n--> infinity (3/4)^n = 0

The Attempt at a Solution



?? Why is this. How do you know.

Look at the sequence 3/4, (3/4)2, (3/4)3, and so on. What appears to be happening?
 
Got it. What about this? THanks
limit (1+k/n)^n as n->infinity

Just go here http://www.calcchat.com/book/Calculus-ETF-5e/
You have to put in chapter 9 section 1 and question 69. I just don't understand how they knew to make a substitution.
 
Ps then after they make the sub with u they write it as u goes to 0...huh?
 
Jbreezy said:
Got it. What about this? THanks
limit (1+k/n)^n as n->infinity

Just go here http://www.calcchat.com/book/Calculus-ETF-5e/
You have to put in chapter 9 section 1 and question 69. I just don't understand how they knew to make a substitution.
They are likely using a result from a previous problem. If so, the purpose of the substitution was to get the problem in that form.
 
Jbreezy said:
Ps then after they make the sub with u they write it as u goes to 0...huh?
For the substitution u = k/n, if n → ∞, what does u do?
 
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Stays the same? Isn't k a constant? So OH lol so you take the limit as u goes to 0 because as k/n goes to infinity u goes to 0? I say that right?
 
Sorry, I was typing faster than I was thinking. I meant "what does u do" as n → ∞?(I edited my earlier post.)
Jbreezy said:
Stays the same? Isn't k a constant? So OH lol so you take the limit as u goes to 0 because as k/n goes to infinity u goes to 0? I say that right?
No, you didn't. As k/n goes to infinity, so does u, since u = k/n. The way to look at it is, as n → ∞, then the fraction k/n → 0.
 
Mark44 said:
Sorry, I was typing faster than I was thinking. I meant "what does u do" as n → ∞?(I edited my earlier post.)
No, you didn't. As k/n goes to infinity, so does u, since u = k/n. The way to look at it is, as n → ∞, then the fraction k/n → 0.

This always bugs me, because assuming k > 0, as n → ∞, k/n → 0 from the right.
 
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