Why Might the Efficiency of a Stirling Engine Differ from a Carnot Engine?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the efficiency of Stirling engines compared to Carnot engines, focusing on the underlying thermodynamic principles and assumptions. Participants explore the implications of isochoric processes in Stirling engines and the conditions under which the Carnot efficiency formula applies.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster questions why the efficiency of an ideal Stirling engine is considered lower than that of a Carnot engine, despite both being described by a similar efficiency equation. They explore the role of entropy changes in the Stirling cycle and whether the Carnot efficiency formula can be applied to it.
  • Some participants challenge the assumption that the entropy change for a Stirling cycle is zero, discussing the implications of real versus ideal cycles.
  • Others suggest reconsidering the definitions of reversible and irreversible processes in the context of these engines.

Discussion Status

The conversation is ongoing, with participants providing insights into the differences between ideal and real engines. There is a recognition of the complexity of the topic, particularly regarding the assumptions of reversibility and entropy changes, but no explicit consensus has been reached.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the nuances of thermodynamic principles, including the definitions of efficiency, entropy, and the characteristics of ideal versus real engines. The discussion reflects a mix of theoretical understanding and practical implications of these concepts.

Psi-String
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Halliday says that the efficiency of an ideal Stirling engine is lower than that of a ideal Carnot engine?? But why??

It seems to me that there efficiency are both \epsilon =1-\frac{T_L}{T_H}

Though Halldiay also say that this equation do not apply to Stirning engine but only to Carnot

Though Stirling engine involves two isochoric process, so unlike carnot which the two isothermal process are connected by adiabatic process, the entropy do change between the two temperature in the Stirling Cycle.

But from \Delta S = nR ln \frac{V_f}{V_i} + nC_V ln \frac{T_f}{T_i}

we can know that the entropy change in the two isochoric process of Stirling cycle canceled out. and still

\frac{|Q_H|}{T_H} = \frac{|Q_L}{T_H} just like Carnot Cycle

So I think efficiency \epsilon=1-\frac{T_L}{T_H} can apply to Stirling


Am I wrong??
 
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Psi-String said:
Halliday says that the efficiency of an ideal Stirling engine is lower than that of a ideal Carnot engine?? But why??

It seems to me that there efficiency are both \epsilon =1-\frac{T_L}{T_H}

Though Halldiay also say that this equation do not apply to Stirning engine but only to Carnot

Though Stirling engine involves two isochoric process, so unlike carnot which the two isothermal process are connected by adiabatic process, the entropy do change between the two temperature in the Stirling Cycle.

But from \Delta S = nR ln \frac{V_f}{V_i} + nC_V ln \frac{T_f}{T_i}

we can know that the entropy change in the two isochoric process of Stirling cycle canceled out. and still

\frac{|Q_H|}{T_H} = \frac{|Q_L}{T_H} just like Carnot Cycle

So I think efficiency \epsilon=1-\frac{T_L}{T_H} can apply to Stirling

Am I wrong??
Yes. The efficiency of a Carnot engine is \epsilon=1-\frac{T_L}{T_H} because \Delta S = 0

Efficiency is work/heat flow: \eta = W/Q_h.
Because W = Qh - Qc \eta = 1 - Q_c/Q_h

Since the heat flow into the Carnot engine is isothermal: \int dS = \int dQ/T = Q_h/T_h and for the heat flow out: \int dS = Q_c/T_c. If the change in entropy is 0:

Q_c/T_c = Q_h/T_h or Q_c/Q_h = T_c/T_h

If \Delta S \ne 0 then you cannot equate Tc/Th to Qc/Qh.

AM
 
Last edited:
But isn't \Delta S=0 for Stirling cycle?
Stirling engine is a closed path, doesn't that also imply that the entropy change in one stirling cycle is also zero??
 
Last edited:
Psi-String said:
But isn't \Delta S=0 for Stirling cycle?
Stirling engine is a closed path, doesn't that also imply that the entropy change in one stirling cycle is also zero??
No. The Stirling engine is a real engine. If you store the work output you cannot run the cylcle in reverse to get back to the original conditions without adding more work than it produced on the forward cycle. Since it is not reversible, \Delta S \ne 0

The Carnot is reversible. It operates at constant thermodynamic equilibirum using infinitessimal temperature differerences and slow adiabatic compressions and expansions. If you store the work output, you can use that work to reverse the cycle by an infinitessimal change in conditions.

AM
 
I see. thanks
 

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