Originally posted by Dark Wing
-What do you think the current materialistic stance is? you keep saying that you don't believe that by looking at the brain you can deduce consciousness within. And you claim that this means that the paradigm of materialism is lacking in explanation of anything that it trying to prove/study/look at. Basically, materialism is redundant in that it cannot explain what it is trying to as it does not even know what it is looking at.
Well, exactly. Because the word "consciousness" is completely misleading. there is no such thing. you can't deduce consciousness from looking at the brain, as there is no Consciousness there. But you can deduce movement and interaction of environmental stimulus, and you can see responses at neuro-chemical level. so i guess all i am saying is that consciousness is life. is movement of matter and energy. and, if you take the identity theory side of materialism, then this is exactly what they are saying. functionalism is looking at a reduction, eliminative materialism is basically looking at physics and claims there is nothing to reduce, and the concept of deducting consciousness is a complete farce.
I find your position here a little confusing in light of things you have said previously:
I think that we should at least start at a point where we know that consciousness is the case. (i am aware that people will argue that we are not conscious, and that we are all just robots, but i am going to presume consciousness on the basis of Searls "seeming" argument).
On the one hand you present consciousness with a very behaviorist kind of flavor, saying it is nothing more than the movement of matter and energy, and that really there is no such thing as consciousness; on the other hand you say that consciousness is the case, on the basis of Searle's "seeming" argument.
Consciousness seems to be a bad word to use in these discussions, since it always gets twisted around at some point. It's too ambiguous. The relevant component of consciousness that I am talking about is
experience or
feeling (or equally well
seeming, I suppose.) Despite confusions about what consciousness is and if it really exists or not, can we agree that it is certainly the case that humans have 1st person subjective experiences? I am presuming you answer yes to this question, otherwise, you deny the manifestly true and we cannot proceed.
Now, to state that problem very simply and succintly: how is it that "movement of matter and energy" can "seem" to be anything at all? Based on even our most complete understanding, there is nothing in matter and energy that should ever give rise to "seeming." That is the crux of the issue at hand. What in physics can account for "seeming," even in principle, the same way the structure of H2O molecules accounts for water? The answer would seem to be 'nothing at all.' Accordingly, there should be more to our descriptions of reality than there currently is, in order to fully account for experience/feelings.
again, please explain to me what materialism is then. I have always taken it to be the study of the physical: i know the functionalist stance takes it from top down, but again, i am not sure what you are saying here, i am sorry.
Materialism: the stance that only the physical exists, and the description of that physical ontology (a catalogue of properties / fundamental entities such as charge, mass, spacetime, and so on, as interrelated by the laws of physics).
no, it says that those things that are biology are consciousness. consciousness is not made. it is just a term we have put on something that is. we think of it as something being made, we think of it as a bi product, we think of it as something other than simply movement of atoms, but its not. its just the physical world doing its thing.
Again, the way you have described things here, I don't think there is anything being done to objectively ascertain that biology is consciousness; it just assumed from the beginning and then carried through to the end.
No. the difference is in the seeming. there HAS to be more to the story, as we actually do attribute meaning to our actions and the world around us NO MATTER HOW WRONG THOSE ATTRIBUTIONS MIGHT BE. A computer has no way of making those attributions: we are an inside agent attributing to the outside world: we are attributing meanings to the computers action: outside in instead of inside out. a computer is only dealing with symbols: it has not way of understanding it at all.
You could just as well say that a human brain is only dealing with symbols and has no way of understanding it at all. Of course, we know this is not the case, but it really
should be the case if you follow the logic of the CR argument. The only reason we know that CR does not apply to the human brain is from 1st person experience. If this is not the case, explain to me what caveats exist in the CR argument such that CR does not apply to human brains. Are these really justified by the argument or are they
ad hoc patch-ups to make it compatible with reality?
the human brain does not "have" it, it IS it. and you can argue that its all the same in physics: that’s fine: we have found a universal consciousness causation in which we are all linked: but to me, consciousness is a meaningless term, and is simply a re-description of a physical system brought on by misunderstanding of how the body functions.
I disagree. No matter what you say about consciousness, it is really impossible to deny that
experience or
feelings exist. If you look over the materialist ontology (spacetime, mass, charge, matter, energy etc, and the laws of physics), from what in this ontology can it follow, even in principle, that experience or feelings should exist? I argue that experience cannot logically follow from any of these things, and thus should join them as an ontologically fundamental building block.
even if it is conceivable, so what? just because you can conceive something means nothing. i can conceive of a pink elephant in another universe, does that mean that it is relevant to what’s happening here? in another universe, maybe there is a non-physical substance that causes mind. there is little evidence that that be the case here. we have found out non-physical substance- energy.
Conceivability ties into explanatory power, which ultimately ties into our understanding of the world. If we possesses a good explanation of a certain phenomenon, then any rational agent who accepts our axioms and understands our logic will not even be able to conceive of an event contrary to that predicted by the explanation. (Here, again, the relevant axioms are the fundamental, nonreducible components of materialism: spacetime, mass/energy, laws of phsycis, etc.)
Example: suppose we have two competing theories about the properties of water. On the first theory, the properties of water are determined by the water god Wata. This is not a very good explanation for several reasons, one of which being that it leaves us free to rationally conceive of something to the contrary; if Wata determines the properties of water, then why didn't he decide to make water look red instead of clear/green/blue? (For that matter, why is it Wata and not Raja who determines the properties of water?) I can easily conceive under this theory that water should turn out to be red; it has not been adequately explained to me why it
must be the case that water has its characteristic properties as observed to exist in nature.
The second theory is the standard scientific one involving H2O molecules. On this theory, we start off with the characteristic materialist properties of H2O molecules-- their atomic structure and bonding propensities, and so on-- and from these, we show how a large collection of such molecules under the proper conditions
must combine to form a macroscopic substance with the properties of water. Under this explanation, it is not even possible to rationally conceive that H2O molecules could combine to comprise a substance with properties different from water. The explanandum (thing to be explained) follows as a
necessary consequence of the explanation, leaving no room for a rational imagination to contradict it.
If one can fully understand a materialist theory of consciousness and
still rationally conceive of a metaphysical world physically identical to ours where human brains are not conscious (do not experience perceptual feelings), then the implication is that that materialist theory of consciousness is a pretty lousy one. Specifically, the axioms (materialist ontology) are insufficient; it has not shown how the explanandum (consciousness/seeming/experiencing/feeling)
must be a necessary consequence of the explanation.
If my explanations still seem confusing or incorrect to you, you may want to check out a couple of papers by Chalmers that essentially embody what I am trying to say here:
http://www.u.arizona.edu/~chalmers/papers/facing.html
http://www.u.arizona.edu/~chalmers/papers/nature.html