Physicsissuef
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Why the Galileo transformations are not correct for inertial systems which are traveling close to the speed of light? What made Lorentz to correct this?
The discussion centers on the inadequacy of the Galilean transformations for inertial systems moving close to the speed of light and the subsequent development of the Lorentz transformations. Participants explore the historical context and theoretical implications of these transformations, particularly in relation to electromagnetism and relativistic effects such as time dilation and length contraction.
Participants express differing views on the derivation and implications of the Lorentz transformations, with no clear consensus on the historical accuracy of the accounts or the necessity of referencing specific contributions in teaching special relativity.
Some claims about the historical development of the transformations and the conditions under which they were derived remain unresolved, with participants holding varying interpretations of the significance of time dilation and length contraction in this context.
No, and that is not how Einstein derived them either. Those can be derived from relativity, but they weren't conditions that were imposed to arrive at lorentz transformations. (I do not believe there even was any experimental evidence of time dilation for Lorentz or Einstein to use at the time.)bernhard.rothenstein said:because they are not able to account for relativistic effects like time dilation and length contraction. Lorentz extended them imposing the condition that they should account for them.
The correction came from looking at electromagnetism. Luckily this was already written in its correct form before special relativity was "discovered". Unlike all the other empirical laws of the time, electromagnetism did not look the same in another frame if you applied a Galilean transformation. This confused many people.Physicsissuef said:Why the Galileo transformations are not correct for inertial systems which are traveling close to the speed of light? What made Lorentz to correct this?
JustinLevy said:No, and that is not how Einstein derived them either. Those can be derived from relativity, but they weren't conditions that were imposed to arrive at lorentz transformations. (I do not believe there even was any experimental evidence of time dilation for Lorentz or Einstein to use at the time.)
Thank you for your oppinion. Since Einstein presented his derivation of the transformation equations, history of physics has registered many derivations of them, imposing the condition that they account for time dilation and length contraction. Arxiv presents many derivations of them. The formulas which account for time dilation and length contraction could be derived without using the Lorentz-Einstein transformations. The author of the thread did not mention Einstein's name. I think he could find out something updated from the way in which I answered his question.
With respect for your oppinion.
Mentz114 said:I agree with Justin Levy. Einstein realized that Gallilean transformations did not work with electromagnetisn as described by Maxwell's equations. Most people were surprised by the subsequent predictions of length contraction and time dilation.