Does Lorentz invariance imply Einstein's synchronization convention?

[cianfa72]

What does that achieve? That's hardly worth a paper.

I believe it simply shows that in the aforementioned condition Einstein's synchronization convention is consistent (i.e. 'simultaneous' according it defines actually an 'equivalence class').

 

[PeroK]

I believe it simply shows that in the aforementioned condition Einstein's synchronization convention is consistent (i.e. 'simultaneous' according it defines actually an 'equivalence class of events').

Well, if Weyl proved that in 1923, then it's a waste of time now.

In any case, it's clear if you read the paper that they believe they have proved way more than that.

 

[cianfa72]

In any case, it's clear if you read the paper that they believe they have proved way more than that.

In MINUL pag 10 they claim to remove an assumption (namely $z=0$) Weyl employed to show that Einstein's synchronization convention is consistent. In section 4 they show that from $2c \Rightarrow (z=0)$. Hence since from $L/c$ follows $2c$ then they give a proof of $L/c \Rightarrow 1c$ (note that the latter is actually a two folded statement).