Why used $\cos\theta$ for $\text{y}$ axis or, gravitational force?

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on the use of $\cos\theta$ in the context of gravitational force acting on mass M1 on an inclined plane. Participants clarify that while $\cos\theta$ is typically associated with the x-axis, it is also applicable when decomposing gravitational force into components along the slope. The gravitational force acting on M1 can be resolved into components, with $M_1g\cos\theta$ representing the normal force perpendicular to the incline. This demonstrates that vector components can be utilized for forces acting at angles, regardless of their original orientation. Understanding these vector components is crucial for accurately analyzing motion on an incline.
Istiak
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Homework Statement
Mass M1 is held on a plane with inclination
angle θ, and mass M2 hangs over the side. The two masses are connected by a
massless string which runs over a massless pulley (see Fig. 3.1). The coefficient of
kinetic friction between M1 and the plane is µ. M1 is released from rest. Assuming that
M2 is sufficiently large so that M1 gets pulled up the plane, what is the acceleration
of the masses? What is the tension in the string?
Relevant Equations
F=ma
>![figure 3.2](https://physics.codidact.com/uploads/B5XdWq6GbB4vwyADQdALaCrC)![figure 3.1](https://physics.codidact.com/uploads/pkmWFgoesvQaiAfv5yKj6ynB)<br/>
>Mass M1 is held on a plane with inclination
angle θ, and mass M2 hangs over the side. The two masses are connected by a
massless string which runs over a massless pulley (see Fig. 3.1). The coefficient of
kinetic friction between M1 and the plane is µ. M1 is released from rest. Assuming that
M2 is sufficiently large so that M1 gets pulled up the plane, what is the acceleration
of the masses? What is the tension in the string?

Then, they were writing force of that figure.

$$T-f-M_1g\sin \theta = M_1a$$
$$N-M_1g\cos \theta=0$$
$$M_2g-T=M_2a$$

In the second equation they wrote that $$M_1g\cos \theta$$

Usually, $\cos$ is used when we think of $\text{x}$ axis. Since, $$\cos \theta=\frac{\color{blue}\text{base}}{\text{hypotenuse}}$$
But, gravitational force is forever through $\text{y}$ axis. Although, why they used $\cos\theta$ for gravitational force.
 
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Force is a vector and can be decomposed into components tangential to and normal to a slope. That's why an object tends to move down a slope with less than the free fall acceleration.

As in your other post, it looks like it's the concept of vector components you are missing.
 
Istiakshovon said:
Usually, ##\cos## is used when we think of ##{x}## axis.
That is the case when starting with something (a force, a displacement..) at angle theta to the horizontal and finding the horizontal component: ##x=r\cos(\theta)##.
In this case, we are starting something vertical (weight) and finding its component normal to the slope. That is the same as the angle between the plane and the horizontal.
 
Kindly see the attached pdf. My attempt to solve it, is in it. I'm wondering if my solution is right. My idea is this: At any point of time, the ball may be assumed to be at an incline which is at an angle of θ(kindly see both the pics in the pdf file). The value of θ will continuously change and so will the value of friction. I'm not able to figure out, why my solution is wrong, if it is wrong .
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