Will a magnetic field pass through non magnetic materials

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SUMMARY

A magnetic field will pass through non-magnetic materials, such as copper and wood, as if they were air, allowing for the attraction of magnets even with these materials in between. However, the presence of non-magnetic materials can reduce the strength of the magnetic field, affecting the number of attracted objects, such as iron nails. Non-magnetic materials exhibit paramagnetism and diamagnetism, which can influence how they interact with magnetic fields. Ultimately, for an object to be attracted to a magnet, it must be within the magnetic field and possess magnetic poles, regardless of how those poles are induced.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of basic magnetic properties, including paramagnetism and diamagnetism.
  • Familiarity with the concept of magnetic shielding and its effects.
  • Knowledge of atomic structure and electron orbitals.
  • Basic principles of electromagnetism.
NEXT STEPS
  • Research the principles of magnetic shielding and its applications in various materials.
  • Study the differences between paramagnetism and diamagnetism in non-magnetic materials.
  • Explore the quantum mechanical basis of magnetism and its implications for material properties.
  • Investigate the effects of magnetic fields on different materials, including ferromagnetic and non-magnetic substances.
USEFUL FOR

Students of physics, educators, and anyone interested in understanding the interactions between magnetic fields and various materials, particularly in the context of electromagnetism and material science.

sgstudent
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Hi and thanks for helping me with these physics questions.

Firstly, will a magnetic field pass through non magnetic materials as though it was air? For example, will a magnet still attract another magnet when copper or wood is placed in between it?
I understand that if the material in between it is a magnetic material then magnetic shielding will occur. however, I'm not very sure if the magnetic field will simply pass through non magnetic materials as though it was air?

I think that it should be able to pass through them as long as the magnetic field is strong enough.

Pls help me with this question. thanks so much for the help
 
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A magnetic field (of any size) will simply pass through a non magnetic material as though it were air?
 
Hint:
Air is a non magnetic material.
 
Oh I read the article on Wikipedia. So since copper n lead (most non magnetic materials) have a portability of 1, then putting a piece of copper will have no effect at all? But when wood is placed in between a magnet n a magnet, it can attract less iron nails than when the magnet is directly exposed to the iron nails.
So I'm not very clear on this part.
 
sgstudent said:
Oh I read the article on Wikipedia. So since copper n lead (most non magnetic materials) have a portability of 1, then putting a piece of copper will have no effect at all? But when wood is placed in between a magnet n a magnet, it can attract less iron nails than when the magnet is directly exposed to the iron nails.
So I'm not very clear on this part.

Things like air aren't the same as a vacuum to a magnetic field. In general ANYTHING, ferromagnetic or otherwise, is made of atoms and in magnetic fields the electron orbitals of atoms actually distort even if the atom normally is non-magnetic. The two main effects are a component which tends to align with the external magnetic field (this is called paramagnetism), and an effect that tends to cancel out the external magnetic field (diamagnetism). In a lot of materials the paramagnetism dominates (it depends on the total angular momentum of the atom) but in some diamagnetism does. Anyway, my main point is that the magnetic field tends to induce a magnetic field (which either may work with or against the external field) in non-magnetic materials. Thus, no, air is not "invisible" to magnetic fields.
 
Oh so does this mean that magnetic fields will pass through materials the same way if they have the same portability? Like air n copper n most non magnetic materials? Since they all have the same portability? Meaning 1com of air n one cm of wood or copper won't change the no of attracted pins for example?
 
maverick_starstrider said:
Things like air aren't the same as a vacuum to a magnetic field. In general ANYTHING, ferromagnetic or otherwise, is made of atoms and in magnetic fields the electron orbitals of atoms actually distort even if the atom normally is non-magnetic. The two main effects are a component which tends to align with the external magnetic field (this is called paramagnetism), and an effect that tends to cancel out the external magnetic field (diamagnetism). In a lot of materials the paramagnetism dominates (it depends on the total angular momentum of the atom) but in some diamagnetism does. Anyway, my main point is that the magnetic field tends to induce a magnetic field (which either may work with or against the external field) in non-magnetic materials. Thus, no, air is not "invisible" to magnetic fields.

Yes it is right i read something like this too..but what i had in mind was this-any non-magnetic substance kept in the vicinity of a magnetic field will strangely have it's atoms aligned in such a way that a magnetism is induced in it which may be temporary or permanent depending on the retentivity power.However what you said about diamagnetism confuses me..If you could elaborate a bit more here-the factor on which magnetism inducing or opposing depends..and do all matter always have to have some change or the other when placed in a magnetic field?
 
  • #10
Another thing- an induced cobalt and a bar magnet basically differ in only 1 thing-the latter has poles while the former does not..is it true?
 
  • #11
I repeat:
clem said:
A magnetic field (of any size) will simply pass through a non magnetic material as though it were air?
 
  • #12
Shivam123 said:
Yes it is right i read something like this too..but what i had in mind was this-any non-magnetic substance kept in the vicinity of a magnetic field will strangely have it's atoms aligned in such a way that a magnetism is induced in it which may be temporary or permanent depending on the retentivity power.However what you said about diamagnetism confuses me..If you could elaborate a bit more here-the factor on which magnetism inducing or opposing depends..and do all matter always have to have some change or the other when placed in a magnetic field?

Yes all matter interacts with magnetic fields, it's a basic property of atoms. As for elaborating on what diamagnetism is I don't know if I really can, diamagnetism, just like ferromagnetism (permanent magnets) is ultimately and entirely quantum mechanical effect, if you don't know quantum mechanics there's not much headway to be made. However, I can say that though technically all atoms have paramagnetic and diamagnetic interactions it's only atoms with un-filled electron shells that have any appreciable magnetic properties. In addition to this the paramagnetism aspect is in general much stronger than the diamagnetic so it's dominant. The exception to this is certain atoms where the paramagnetic interactions vanish (again the reasons are quantum mechanical). In these materials, even though the diamagnetic interactions are just as weak as other atoms, diamagnetism is the dominant effect.
 
  • #13
Oh ok thanks for the help. I understand it now. Then when magnetic shielding happens, if a long n thin strip of iron is placed between a magnet and some pins then the pins won't get attracted? It's because no magnetic field lines pass through them right? Even though there are 2 south poles in the middle of the magnet facing the pins. But then if it was free to move it would get attracted as the field lineage pass through it rigght? Even though its only the 2 south pole facing which is similar to the pins case? So does it mean that the object will only move if a magnetic field is present despite if the poles are at present?

So in conclusion the only way for an object to be attracted is if
1) the object must be within the magnetic field of a magnet
2) the object must have their poles (doesn't matter how it gets it even induction is considered)

Am I right to say this? Thanks for all the response and help!
 
  • #14
I have not read quantum mechanics yet so i am not going to trouble you any more!
Anyways thanks for the support
 

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