- #1
rattan5
- 3
- 0
Since the change of kinetic energy, K2-K1, ALWAYS equals the integral of F.dr along any path, how can that integral depend upon the path? I realize that the integral is ONLY equal to the change in potential energy (F is the derivative of the potential) at the end points when F is a conservative force. But the integral always equals the same value K2-K1, regardless of the path from 1 to 2. Isn't that what is meant by independence of path?