DPMachine
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In general, would it be true that if a set is bounded, there must also be a supremum for the set? Too obvious, perhaps?
If a set is bounded and consists of real numbers, it possesses a supremum, which is a defining property of the real numbers. However, this does not hold true for all sets; for instance, the set of rational numbers where x^2 < 2 is bounded but lacks a rational supremum, as its supremum is the irrational number √2. The discussion emphasizes the importance of defining the type of set and the metric involved when considering boundedness and supremum.
PREREQUISITESMathematicians, students of advanced mathematics, and anyone interested in the properties of sets and number systems will benefit from this discussion.
Define your terms! A "set" does not even have to consist of numbers. In order to talk about a set being "bounded" there must be some kind of metric defined on it but even then there may not be an order- the set of all complex numbers with norm less than 1 is bounded but is not an ordered set and so "supremum" makes no sense.DPMachine said:In general, would it be true that if a set is bounded, there must also be a supremum for the set? Too obvious, perhaps?