fluidistic
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With the normal Zeeman effect, I think the splitting of the emission/absorption lines is worth \Delta E = \mu _B B m_l. That was before they knew about the spin.
When they discovered the spin they realized that in fact the energy splitting was worth \Delta E =g_l \mu _B B m_l where g_l=1+\frac{j(j+1)+s(s+1)-l(l+1)}{2j(j+1)}.
Now for example if I take the hydrogen atom in its ground state, g_l=2. So that the \Delta E is twice as big as what they thought it was before the understanding of the spin.
How could they think that their formula before the spin introduction was "ok"? I mean a factor 2 looks enormous to me. Am I missing something?
Besides, why should one use the formula for the normal Zeeman effect in -undergraduate physics- problems while it doesn't seem (at least to me) give any value close to the real ones? I feel like I'm really missing something.
Can someone shed some light on this?
When they discovered the spin they realized that in fact the energy splitting was worth \Delta E =g_l \mu _B B m_l where g_l=1+\frac{j(j+1)+s(s+1)-l(l+1)}{2j(j+1)}.
Now for example if I take the hydrogen atom in its ground state, g_l=2. So that the \Delta E is twice as big as what they thought it was before the understanding of the spin.
How could they think that their formula before the spin introduction was "ok"? I mean a factor 2 looks enormous to me. Am I missing something?
Besides, why should one use the formula for the normal Zeeman effect in -undergraduate physics- problems while it doesn't seem (at least to me) give any value close to the real ones? I feel like I'm really missing something.
Can someone shed some light on this?