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Zero product property for integers

  1. Feb 4, 2008 #1
    Hi, I am just wondering if the zero product property (ab=0 implies a=0 or b=0) can be proven on the integers, or is it directly axiomatic to the defining of the integers? Also, where might I find a definition of the integer axioms? Thanks a lot,
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Feb 5, 2008 #2

    HallsofIvy

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    Last edited: Feb 5, 2008
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