- #1
drewfstr314
- 20
- 0
Is there any similarity between the zeros of a function and the zeros of its derivative? That is, if
A = set of all x such that f(x) = 0
B = set of all x such that f'(x) = 0
then is there any pattern to finding A if B is known (or vice versa)?
Thanks!
A = set of all x such that f(x) = 0
B = set of all x such that f'(x) = 0
then is there any pattern to finding A if B is known (or vice versa)?
Thanks!