Zeros of functions on the complex plane

Join the discussion
Ask a follow-up here, or get your own question answered by working scientists, mathematicians and engineers — people, not an autocomplete.
Real named experts · corrections over time · the nuance an AI answer skips
1 reply · 2K views
zetafunction
Messages
371
Reaction score
0
what is the relationship (if any) of the following statement

- A function has ALL the zeros on the line (complex plane) [tex]Re (z) = A[/tex] for some Real A

- A function has ALL the zeros on the unit circle defined by [tex]|z| \le 1[/tex]

i think there is a transformation of coordinates so the line Re (z) = A would become the unit circle but i do not know what is.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Think it's f(z)= (z-A+r)/(z-A-r) where both A and r are real numbers. The line has inverse points lying either side of it and mirrored by it. The unit circle has its centre and inf as inverse points. So you can map the A-r to the centre of the circle and A+r to infinity, then scale the circle to the right size by mapping A to 1. It works because the line is a generalized circle.
:-)