Understanding Aharonov-Bohm Effect: Confusions Explained

  • Thread starter Thread starter spidey
  • Start date Start date
spidey
Messages
213
Reaction score
0
I am confussed with aharonov bohm effect. i read the wikipedia article.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aharonov-Bohm_effect

The most commonly described case, sometimes called the Aharonov–Bohm solenoid effect, is when the wave function of a charged particle passing around a long solenoid experiences a phase shift as a result of the enclosed magnetic field, despite the magnetic field being zero in the region through which the particle passes.

it says "enclosed magnetic field" but "magnetic field is zero"

An electric Aharonov–Bohm phenomenon was also predicted, in which a charged particle is affected by regions with different electrical potentials but zero electric field, and this has also seen experimental confirmation

It says "different electric potentials" but "electric field is zero"
 
Physics news on Phys.org
"enclosed magnetic field" means the field inside the solenoid. The field is zero outside the solenoid.

The electric field is zero when the electric potential is uniform (does not vary with position). In the second case, there are two regions, each with uniform (but different) electric potential. For example, one region might have a uniform potential of 5 volts, and the other one might have a potential of 10 volts. The electric field is zero in both regions.
 
jtbell said:
"enclosed magnetic field" means the field inside the solenoid. The field is zero outside the solenoid.

The electric field is zero when the electric potential is uniform (does not vary with position). In the second case, there are two regions, each with uniform (but different) electric potential. For example, one region might have a uniform potential of 5 volts, and the other one might have a potential of 10 volts. The electric field is zero in both regions.

Even before placing placing the solenoid the magnetic field is zero. After the placing the solenoid also magnetic field is zero.Then, why there is phase shift?
 
spidey said:
Even before placing placing the solenoid the magnetic field is zero. After the placing the solenoid also magnetic field is zero.Then, why there is phase shift?

There is a magnetic vector potential A around the solenoid which goes with 1/r.
The magnetic field B is the curl of this field and happens to be zero. The phase
shift depends on the vector potential A (not the magnetic field B)

http://www.physics-quest.org/Book_Lorentz_force_from_Klein_Gordon.pdf

see section 11.2

Regards, Hans
 
Last edited:
I understand that the world of interpretations of quantum mechanics is very complex, as experimental data hasn't completely falsified the main deterministic interpretations (such as Everett), vs non-deterministc ones, however, I read in online sources that Objective Collapse theories are being increasingly challenged. Does this mean that deterministic interpretations are more likely to be true? I always understood that the "collapse" or "measurement problem" was how we phrased the fact that...
I keep reading throughout this forum from many members that the general motivation for finding a deeper explanation within QM, specifically with regards to quantum entanglement, is due to an inability to grasp reality based off of classical intuitions. On the other hand, if QM was truly incomplete, and there was a deeper explanation that we haven't grasped yet that would explain why particles tend to be correlated to each other seemingly instantly despite vast separated distances, then that...

Similar threads

Back
Top