lebeque dominated convergence thm

vandanak

i got this question in my test i have solved it like this
Lim n->∞∫sin(x/n)/(1+x/n)^ndx integral from 0 to infinity and sin(x/n)/(1+x/n)^n<=e^-x as sin(x/n)<=1 and (1+x/n)^n tends to e^x so we can apply dominated convergence thm as all fn(x) will be less than e^-x so taking limit inside as sin(x/n) tends to zero as n tends to infinity so answer should be 0 well I have not written detailed steps but if my questions is not clear please say it
Is this correct or else how we have to solve it

mathman

Looks all right to me. Suggestion: use punctuation!!!