
#1
Apr2211, 08:27 AM

P: 33

Hi!
I have a little question which is puzzling me. Maybe it is a very simple question. It is my understanding that the FermiDirac distribution is a probability density function and, as such, its integral between 0 and infinite should be 1. When T = 0, the integral gives the chemical potential and so the distribution can be normalized by [tex]1 / \mu[/tex]. But if I calculate the integral while T >> 0 I don't understand which could be the normalization factor. Do you have an answer? Thank you 



#2
Apr2211, 10:21 AM

P: 185

No, the FermiDirac distribution is not a true probability distribution. It tells you the probability of occupation of a state at energy E given the chemical potential, which means that for every energy value the value of f(E) has to range between 0 and 1. It does not get normalized in the way that you're thinking.




#3
Apr2211, 12:56 PM

P: 33

Thank you!



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