Fermi-Dirac distribution normalization


by Davide82
Tags: distribution, fermidirac, normalization
Davide82
Davide82 is offline
#1
Apr22-11, 08:27 AM
P: 33
Hi!

I have a little question which is puzzling me.
Maybe it is a very simple question.

It is my understanding that the Fermi-Dirac distribution is a probability density function and, as such, its integral between 0 and infinite should be 1.
When T = 0, the integral gives the chemical potential and so the distribution can be normalized by [tex]1 / \mu[/tex].
But if I calculate the integral while T >> 0 I don't understand which could be the normalization factor. Do you have an answer?

Thank you
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daveyrocket
daveyrocket is offline
#2
Apr22-11, 10:21 AM
P: 185
No, the Fermi-Dirac distribution is not a true probability distribution. It tells you the probability of occupation of a state at energy E given the chemical potential, which means that for every energy value the value of f(E) has to range between 0 and 1. It does not get normalized in the way that you're thinking.
Davide82
Davide82 is offline
#3
Apr22-11, 12:56 PM
P: 33
Thank you!


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