# Fermi-Dirac distribution normalization

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 P: 33 Hi! I have a little question which is puzzling me. Maybe it is a very simple question. It is my understanding that the Fermi-Dirac distribution is a probability density function and, as such, its integral between 0 and infinite should be 1. When T = 0, the integral gives the chemical potential and so the distribution can be normalized by $$1 / \mu$$. But if I calculate the integral while T >> 0 I don't understand which could be the normalization factor. Do you have an answer? Thank you
 P: 185 No, the Fermi-Dirac distribution is not a true probability distribution. It tells you the probability of occupation of a state at energy E given the chemical potential, which means that for every energy value the value of f(E) has to range between 0 and 1. It does not get normalized in the way that you're thinking.
 P: 33 Thank you!

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