# Fermi-Dirac distribution normalization

 P: 33 Hi! I have a little question which is puzzling me. Maybe it is a very simple question. It is my understanding that the Fermi-Dirac distribution is a probability density function and, as such, its integral between 0 and infinite should be 1. When T = 0, the integral gives the chemical potential and so the distribution can be normalized by $$1 / \mu$$. But if I calculate the integral while T >> 0 I don't understand which could be the normalization factor. Do you have an answer? Thank you