- #1
Davide82
- 33
- 0
Hi!
I have a little question which is puzzling me.
Maybe it is a very simple question.
It is my understanding that the Fermi-Dirac distribution is a probability density function and, as such, its integral between 0 and infinite should be 1.
When T = 0, the integral gives the chemical potential and so the distribution can be normalized by [tex]1 / \mu[/tex].
But if I calculate the integral while T >> 0 I don't understand which could be the normalization factor. Do you have an answer?
Thank you
I have a little question which is puzzling me.
Maybe it is a very simple question.
It is my understanding that the Fermi-Dirac distribution is a probability density function and, as such, its integral between 0 and infinite should be 1.
When T = 0, the integral gives the chemical potential and so the distribution can be normalized by [tex]1 / \mu[/tex].
But if I calculate the integral while T >> 0 I don't understand which could be the normalization factor. Do you have an answer?
Thank you