Register to reply

Fermi-Dirac distribution normalization

Share this thread:
Davide82
#1
Apr22-11, 08:27 AM
P: 33
Hi!

I have a little question which is puzzling me.
Maybe it is a very simple question.

It is my understanding that the Fermi-Dirac distribution is a probability density function and, as such, its integral between 0 and infinite should be 1.
When T = 0, the integral gives the chemical potential and so the distribution can be normalized by [tex]1 / \mu[/tex].
But if I calculate the integral while T >> 0 I don't understand which could be the normalization factor. Do you have an answer?

Thank you
Phys.Org News Partner Physics news on Phys.org
New complex oxides could advance memory devices
'Squid skin' metamaterials project yields vivid color display
Scientists control surface tension to manipulate liquid metals (w/ Video)
daveyrocket
#2
Apr22-11, 10:21 AM
P: 185
No, the Fermi-Dirac distribution is not a true probability distribution. It tells you the probability of occupation of a state at energy E given the chemical potential, which means that for every energy value the value of f(E) has to range between 0 and 1. It does not get normalized in the way that you're thinking.
Davide82
#3
Apr22-11, 12:56 PM
P: 33
Thank you!


Register to reply

Related Discussions
Fermi Dirac Distribution Quantum Physics 0
Fermi-dirac distribution Advanced Physics Homework 1
Fermi dirac distribution at T->0 Atomic, Solid State, Comp. Physics 2
Fermi-Dirac Distribution Advanced Physics Homework 3
Fermi-Dirac Distribution Quantum Physics 1