
#1
Apr1812, 07:10 PM

P: 22

Ok,
I understand an inverse function sends a variable in the range to the corresponding value in the domain, but am not sure if what I'm thinking is correct... : For example: Let A be the set [itex] A = \{1,2,3,7,8\} ; B = \{4,5,6\} [/itex] and the function [itex] f [/itex] map A to B s.t f(1) = 4 f(2) = 5 f(3) = 6 so 7,8 do not have a value that is mapped one to one. I understand f is an surjection, but not a injection . But, does an inverse function exist? I would say yes, despite there not being a value in B that maps to 7 or 8. Is my thinking correct? Also, am I correct to say that a function does not have to use every element in the domain in order to have an inverse; I am confused because wouldn't one just say it maps to the null set and the inverse of the null set would contain values(7,8) that it maps to and hence not a function...? 



#2
Apr1812, 09:08 PM

P: 606

If we talk of a function [itex]f: A\to B[/itex] , we're explicitly assuming f is defined in the whole of A. Whether f is 11 and/or onto is another matter. DonAntonio 


Register to reply 
Related Discussions  
functions involving null set  General Math  2  
Inverse functions in R^n  Calculus  3  
Inverse and Composite Inverse Functions  Precalculus Mathematics Homework  2  
Inverse functions for f:R^m>R^m , or f:X^m>Y^m  Calculus  5  
inverse functions  Precalculus Mathematics Homework  7 