- #1
Somefantastik
- 230
- 0
Hey everybody,
[tex] \int_{B(0,\epsilon)} log \frac{1}{r} \ dxdy \ = \ \int^{2\pi}_{0} d\theta \ \int^{\epsilon}_{0} log \frac{1}{r} \ rdr [/tex]
when r = r(x,y)
and B is a small ball with radius [tex] \epsilon [/tex]
Is this right? I haven't done this in forever and I need to be sure.
Thanks!
[tex] \int_{B(0,\epsilon)} log \frac{1}{r} \ dxdy \ = \ \int^{2\pi}_{0} d\theta \ \int^{\epsilon}_{0} log \frac{1}{r} \ rdr [/tex]
when r = r(x,y)
and B is a small ball with radius [tex] \epsilon [/tex]
Is this right? I haven't done this in forever and I need to be sure.
Thanks!