- #1
frankinstein
- 74
- 0
Let's say all things are known in the Universe and magic doesn't exist, then:
K is the set of all things known and Magic, M, doesn't exist.
M [tex]\notin[/tex] {K}
Let {[tex]\neg[/tex] K} be all things not known.
{[tex]\neg[/tex] K} [tex]\notin[/tex] {K}
Since Magic can not be defined by {K} Then
M [tex]\in[/tex] {[tex]\neg[/tex] K} by default since
{[tex]\neg[/tex] K} is the set of what can not be defined by {K}
Because the first premise is absurd, not all is known about the universe then the set {[tex]\neg[/tex] K} is real and magic is a form of unknown which belongs to the set of {[tex]\neg[/tex] K}. :tongue:
Any comments or suggestions as to how to make this a better proof would be appreciated, thanks. Also is there any other similar proof of magic?
K is the set of all things known and Magic, M, doesn't exist.
M [tex]\notin[/tex] {K}
Let {[tex]\neg[/tex] K} be all things not known.
{[tex]\neg[/tex] K} [tex]\notin[/tex] {K}
Since Magic can not be defined by {K} Then
M [tex]\in[/tex] {[tex]\neg[/tex] K} by default since
{[tex]\neg[/tex] K} is the set of what can not be defined by {K}
Because the first premise is absurd, not all is known about the universe then the set {[tex]\neg[/tex] K} is real and magic is a form of unknown which belongs to the set of {[tex]\neg[/tex] K}. :tongue:
Any comments or suggestions as to how to make this a better proof would be appreciated, thanks. Also is there any other similar proof of magic?