- #1
phioder
- 25
- 0
Hello,
The following equation:
[tex]\frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial r^2}+\frac{1}{r} \cdot \frac{\partial u}{\partial r}+ \frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial z^2} = 0[/tex]
is solved by separation of variables assuming a solution of the form:
[tex]u=R(r)Z(z)[/tex]
In other cases the assumed solution is of the form:
[tex]u=\psi_{0}+\psi_{1}z+R(r)Z(z)[/tex]
Could anyone tell me or give me a hint where do the [tex]\psi[/tex]s come from?
Best Regards
Phioder
The following equation:
[tex]\frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial r^2}+\frac{1}{r} \cdot \frac{\partial u}{\partial r}+ \frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial z^2} = 0[/tex]
is solved by separation of variables assuming a solution of the form:
[tex]u=R(r)Z(z)[/tex]
In other cases the assumed solution is of the form:
[tex]u=\psi_{0}+\psi_{1}z+R(r)Z(z)[/tex]
Could anyone tell me or give me a hint where do the [tex]\psi[/tex]s come from?
Best Regards
Phioder