- #1
ChrisVer
Gold Member
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- 465
I have a problem understanding the attached part of the book... Specifically how they derived this result for the Fs...
For example I'll try to write:
[itex] F_{1}^{\dagger}= - \frac{\partial W(Φ_{1},Φ_{2},Φ_{3})}{\partial Φ_{1}}|_{Φ_{1}=φ_{1}}[/itex]
If I do that for the O'Raifeartaigh superpotential I'll get:
[itex] F_{1}^{\dagger}= -λ_{1} (Φ_{3}^{2}-Μ^{2})[/itex]
However they choose [itex]Φ_{3}=φ_{3}[/itex] instead, and I don't know why they do that...
For example I'll try to write:
[itex] F_{1}^{\dagger}= - \frac{\partial W(Φ_{1},Φ_{2},Φ_{3})}{\partial Φ_{1}}|_{Φ_{1}=φ_{1}}[/itex]
If I do that for the O'Raifeartaigh superpotential I'll get:
[itex] F_{1}^{\dagger}= -λ_{1} (Φ_{3}^{2}-Μ^{2})[/itex]
However they choose [itex]Φ_{3}=φ_{3}[/itex] instead, and I don't know why they do that...