- #1
TenaliRaman
- 644
- 1
We are given Z_p, where p is prime. It is known that there is an 'a' such that a^3 = 2 (mod p) and that 3 does not divide p-1. Does this imply that f(x) in (x^3-2) = (x-a)f(x) is irreducible over Z_p?
I think this should be trivially easy to answer, but my mind is so muddled up at the moment, that i can't even think straight currently.
-- AI
I think this should be trivially easy to answer, but my mind is so muddled up at the moment, that i can't even think straight currently.
-- AI