- #1
Philip Wong
- 95
- 0
hi guys,
I'm wondering in multivariate analysis, when we standardize our mean to 0 (centroid our data) why do we have to set our S.D = 1?
I mean doesn't S.D = 1, only coves 50% of the data? shouldn't we use S.D = 3? where 99.95% of sampling data was covered instead? When we centroid our data, we've already lost some information, so why then do we still use S.D =1?
can someone explain it to me! thanks!
I'm wondering in multivariate analysis, when we standardize our mean to 0 (centroid our data) why do we have to set our S.D = 1?
I mean doesn't S.D = 1, only coves 50% of the data? shouldn't we use S.D = 3? where 99.95% of sampling data was covered instead? When we centroid our data, we've already lost some information, so why then do we still use S.D =1?
can someone explain it to me! thanks!