- #1
PFStudent
- 170
- 0
Homework Statement
Consider the function,
[tex]
{{\vec{F}}(r)} = {\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}}{{\vec{f}}(r)}{\times}{d{\vec{r}}}
[/tex]
Is the following true?,
[tex]
{\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}}{{\vec{f}}(r)}{\times}{d{\vec{r}}} = {2}{\int_{0}^{\infty}}{{\vec{f}}(r)}{\times}{d{\vec{r}}}
[/tex]
Homework Equations
Knowledge of infinite limits.
The Attempt at a Solution
I believe it is true, since zero is considered the mid-point between an infinite sum of numbers in one direction and an infinite sum of numbers in the opposite direction.
So is that right?
Any help is appreciated.
Thanks,
-PFStudent