- #1
oddiseas
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Homework Statement
I am trying to figure out how to represent an inverse laplace transform by a power series. There is an example in my book but it is not very well explained.
f(s)=1/s+1 which i know is the transform of y=e^-t.
In the book they use the fact that L(t^n)= n!/s^n+1. and therefore a taylor series representation given by t^n/n!=the inverse of 1/s^n+1. Therefore our power series in s has this form. After this point i am totally lost. They state that 1/s+1 =1/s(1+1/s).
and the solution is therefore (1/s)-(1/s^2)+(1/s^3) etc.
Now id like to know, WHY do they take the factor of s out of the equation?
ANd then how do they find the coefficients of the s terms? do they differentite f(s) to find the coefficient of each s term? like we do for a taolr series
Is there an easier way?
and waht value of s, is it evaluated at to find the coefficients?
If someone understands this i would appreciate an explanation, because this book seems to always assume that the reader is a 20 year mathematics veteran or something!
So please don't just post the answer because i already know the answer, i am trying to understand this concept.