- #1
phys_student1
- 106
- 0
Hello,
Empirically, the flux distribution of cosmic ray muons follow cos^2(θ) where θ is angle of incidence. Looking up the papers, I did not find any clue as to why is this the case. All sources simply consider this an experimental fact.
Is their any real explanation for this?
Empirically, the flux distribution of cosmic ray muons follow cos^2(θ) where θ is angle of incidence. Looking up the papers, I did not find any clue as to why is this the case. All sources simply consider this an experimental fact.
Is their any real explanation for this?