- #1
Pablolopez
- 2
- 0
Dear users,
I am dealing with the proof of the Hellman Feynman-theorem for time-dependent wavefunctions given by the Wikipedia:
(http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hellmann–Feynman_theorem#Proof_2)
I got stack:
[tex]
\begin{align}
&\frac{\partial}{\partial \lambda}\langle\Phi(\textbf{r},\textbf{R},t)|\hat{H}|\Phi(\textbf{r},\textbf{R},t)\rangle=
\nonumber
\\
&=
i\hbar \langle \frac{\partial}{\partial \lambda} \Phi(\textbf{r},\textbf{R},t)| \frac{\partial}{\partial t} \Phi(\textbf{r},\textbf{R},t)\rangle
+
\langle \Phi(\textbf{r},\textbf{R},t)|\frac{\partial}{\partial \lambda}\hat{H}|\Phi(\textbf{r},\textbf{R},t)\rangle -
\nonumber
\\
&- i\hbar \langle \frac{\partial}{\partial t} \Phi(\textbf{r},\textbf{R},t)|\frac{\partial}{\partial \lambda} \Phi(\textbf{r},\textbf{R},t)\rangle
=
i\hbar\frac{d\lambda}{dt} \langle \frac{\partial}{\partial \lambda} \Phi(\textbf{r},\textbf{R},t)| \frac{\partial}{\partial \lambda} \Phi(\textbf{r},\textbf{R},t)\rangle
+
\nonumber
\\
&+ \langle \Phi(\textbf{r},\textbf{R},t)|\frac{\partial}{\partial \lambda}\hat{H}|\Phi(\textbf{r},\textbf{R},t)\rangle -i\hbar\frac{d\lambda}{dt} \langle \frac{\partial}{\partial \lambda} \Phi(\textbf{r},\textbf{R},t)| \frac{\partial}{\partial \lambda} \Phi(\textbf{r},\textbf{R},t)\rangle
=
\nonumber
\\
&=
\langle\Phi(\textbf{r},\textbf{R},t)|\frac{\partial\hat{H}}{\partial\lambda}|\Phi(\textbf{r},\textbf{R},t)\rangle
\end{align}
[/tex]
I cannot understand the step in which the total derivatives appear, why? could somebody help me?
Thanks in advance
I am dealing with the proof of the Hellman Feynman-theorem for time-dependent wavefunctions given by the Wikipedia:
(http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hellmann–Feynman_theorem#Proof_2)
I got stack:
[tex]
\begin{align}
&\frac{\partial}{\partial \lambda}\langle\Phi(\textbf{r},\textbf{R},t)|\hat{H}|\Phi(\textbf{r},\textbf{R},t)\rangle=
\nonumber
\\
&=
i\hbar \langle \frac{\partial}{\partial \lambda} \Phi(\textbf{r},\textbf{R},t)| \frac{\partial}{\partial t} \Phi(\textbf{r},\textbf{R},t)\rangle
+
\langle \Phi(\textbf{r},\textbf{R},t)|\frac{\partial}{\partial \lambda}\hat{H}|\Phi(\textbf{r},\textbf{R},t)\rangle -
\nonumber
\\
&- i\hbar \langle \frac{\partial}{\partial t} \Phi(\textbf{r},\textbf{R},t)|\frac{\partial}{\partial \lambda} \Phi(\textbf{r},\textbf{R},t)\rangle
=
i\hbar\frac{d\lambda}{dt} \langle \frac{\partial}{\partial \lambda} \Phi(\textbf{r},\textbf{R},t)| \frac{\partial}{\partial \lambda} \Phi(\textbf{r},\textbf{R},t)\rangle
+
\nonumber
\\
&+ \langle \Phi(\textbf{r},\textbf{R},t)|\frac{\partial}{\partial \lambda}\hat{H}|\Phi(\textbf{r},\textbf{R},t)\rangle -i\hbar\frac{d\lambda}{dt} \langle \frac{\partial}{\partial \lambda} \Phi(\textbf{r},\textbf{R},t)| \frac{\partial}{\partial \lambda} \Phi(\textbf{r},\textbf{R},t)\rangle
=
\nonumber
\\
&=
\langle\Phi(\textbf{r},\textbf{R},t)|\frac{\partial\hat{H}}{\partial\lambda}|\Phi(\textbf{r},\textbf{R},t)\rangle
\end{align}
[/tex]
I cannot understand the step in which the total derivatives appear, why? could somebody help me?
Thanks in advance
Last edited: