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Additionl field proportional to magnetisation?

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jd12345
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Feb23-12, 10:58 AM
P: 260
Magnetisation of a sample is net dipole moment per unit volume i.e. M = m(net) / V

It turns out that magnetic field due to the material is proportional to magnetisation
i.e. B(magnetic field due to material) = μM
Any explanation to this? It should be proportional but any proof for this or is it just experimental
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tiny-tim
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Feb23-12, 04:14 PM
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hi jd12345!
Quote Quote by jd12345 View Post
Magnetisation of a sample is net dipole moment per unit volume i.e. M = m(net) / V

It turns out that magnetic field due to the material is proportional to magnetisation
i.e. B(magnetic field due to material) = μM
Any explanation to this? It should be proportional but any proof for this or is it just experimental
isn't it B = o(M + H) = H ?

M and H are measured in electric units, as electric current/distance (Am-1),

(magnetic dipole moment is charge times distance/time, = distance times charge/time = distance times electric current, in A.m)

but B is measured in magnetic units, as magnetic flux/area (Wb.m-2)

there's no fundamental reason for this they're all the same thing! it's just more convenient in practice!

so to convert between these different species of units, we must have a universal conversion factor, and that's o (in Wb.A-1m-1 or T.m.A-1)
(as opposed to o) is just a trick to make it look as if B is proportional to H on its own


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