- #1
gespex
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Hello everybody,
I just read the following article:
http://arstechnica.com/science/news...-results-of-measurements-taken-beforehand.ars
http://www.nature.com/nphys/journal/vaop/ncurrent/full/nphys2294.html
(This last one I didn't read as I don't have a nature subscription, but including it for those who have)
Anyway, I wonder what the implications of this are. Would this not mean that backward in time communication would be possible, as follows:
1. From two sources, make many pairs of entangled photons
2. Measure two out of each pair; if the correlation is random, assume a 0 has been sent, if high, a 1.
3. Decide to entangle or not entangle the other two photons depending on whether you want to send a 0 or a 1.
Yet it is often claimed that backward in time communication is impossible, even with quantum mechanics, so there's obviously a logic flaw in my logic. So where am I wrong?
Thanks in advance,
Gespex
I just read the following article:
http://arstechnica.com/science/news...-results-of-measurements-taken-beforehand.ars
http://www.nature.com/nphys/journal/vaop/ncurrent/full/nphys2294.html
(This last one I didn't read as I don't have a nature subscription, but including it for those who have)
Anyway, I wonder what the implications of this are. Would this not mean that backward in time communication would be possible, as follows:
1. From two sources, make many pairs of entangled photons
2. Measure two out of each pair; if the correlation is random, assume a 0 has been sent, if high, a 1.
3. Decide to entangle or not entangle the other two photons depending on whether you want to send a 0 or a 1.
Yet it is often claimed that backward in time communication is impossible, even with quantum mechanics, so there's obviously a logic flaw in my logic. So where am I wrong?
Thanks in advance,
Gespex
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