- #1
Fyreth
- 8
- 0
I'm still in high school. I'm reading about physics as a hobby.
In http://student.fizika.org/~jsisko/Knjige/Opca%20Fizika/Feynman%20Lectures%20on%20Physics/Vol%203%20Ch%2002%20-%20Relation%20of%20Wave%20&%20Particle%20Viewpoints.pdf the limitations of the particle and wave viewpoints are described.
I've read that the probability of an event is the squared absolute value of the probability amplitude. Why would you do that? Wouldn't just taking the square work as well?
On the first page of that document there is this probability amplitude: e[itex]^{i(ωt-k \bullet r)}[/itex]
Why is kr substracted from ωt? Why aren't the phases added to each other?
It also says that the squared absolute value of this amplitude is constant but aren't t and r variables? Why would it be constant?
In http://student.fizika.org/~jsisko/Knjige/Opca%20Fizika/Feynman%20Lectures%20on%20Physics/Vol%203%20Ch%2002%20-%20Relation%20of%20Wave%20&%20Particle%20Viewpoints.pdf the limitations of the particle and wave viewpoints are described.
I've read that the probability of an event is the squared absolute value of the probability amplitude. Why would you do that? Wouldn't just taking the square work as well?
On the first page of that document there is this probability amplitude: e[itex]^{i(ωt-k \bullet r)}[/itex]
Why is kr substracted from ωt? Why aren't the phases added to each other?
It also says that the squared absolute value of this amplitude is constant but aren't t and r variables? Why would it be constant?