- #1
nitro
- 9
- 0
Hi all,
I'm wondering about this question
I can prove that if lim_{n->inf} (a) = L then lim_{n->inf}abs(a) = abs(L)
however.. is the converse true?
thx
I'm wondering about this question
I can prove that if lim_{n->inf} (a) = L then lim_{n->inf}abs(a) = abs(L)
however.. is the converse true?
thx