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Spectrum81
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This question is related to the 1974 Hermann Haus paper "Theory of mode-locking with a slow saturable absorber"
It is not clear how he passes from equation 2 to equation 4 (I'm using the same references as in the paper).
[tex]\omega_{k}[/tex] is the varying frequency, [tex]\omega_{0}[/tex] is the spectrum peak frequency
v2([tex]\omega_{k}[/tex]-[tex]\omega_{0}[/tex]) is the pulse envelope spectrum v1([tex]\omega_{k}[/tex]-[tex]\omega_{0}[/tex]) after time T2+T3 and passing through a bandwidth limiting element which transfer function is:
H([tex]\omega_{k}[/tex])=exp[-([tex]\omega_{0}[/tex]*Tr/4Q)(1+(([tex]\omega_{k}[/tex]-[tex]\omega_{0}[/tex])/[tex]\omega_{c}[/tex])[tex]^{2}[/tex])]
Tr is the cavity round trip time
Q is the cavity Q factor
[tex]\omega_{c}[/tex] is the width of the loss "well"
j[tex]^{2}[/tex]=-1
equation 2:
v2([tex]\omega_{k}[/tex]-[tex]\omega_{0}[/tex])=exp[-j([tex]\omega_{k}[/tex]-[tex]\omega_{0}[/tex])(T2+T3)].H([tex]\omega_{k}[/tex]).v1([tex]\omega_{k}[/tex]-[tex]\omega_{0}[/tex])
He then says that multiplication of v([tex]\omega_{k}[/tex]-[tex]\omega_{0}[/tex]) by j([tex]\omega_{k}[/tex]-[tex]\omega_{0}[/tex]) corresponds to operation by (d/dt -j[tex]\omega_{0}[/tex]) on v(t)exp(j[tex]\omega_{0}[/tex]*t) which is true.
But then he says that equation 2 in the time domain is:
equation 4:
v2(t)=exp[(-[tex]\omega_{0}[/tex]*Tr/4Q)(1-(1/[tex]\omega_{c}[/tex][tex]^{2}[/tex])(d[tex]^{2}[/tex]/dt[tex]^{2}[/tex]))]v1(t-T2-T3)
the d[tex]^{2}[/tex]/dt[tex]^{2}[/tex] argument origin is not explained.
It is maybe a matter of approximation
It is not clear how he passes from equation 2 to equation 4 (I'm using the same references as in the paper).
Homework Statement
[tex]\omega_{k}[/tex] is the varying frequency, [tex]\omega_{0}[/tex] is the spectrum peak frequency
v2([tex]\omega_{k}[/tex]-[tex]\omega_{0}[/tex]) is the pulse envelope spectrum v1([tex]\omega_{k}[/tex]-[tex]\omega_{0}[/tex]) after time T2+T3 and passing through a bandwidth limiting element which transfer function is:
H([tex]\omega_{k}[/tex])=exp[-([tex]\omega_{0}[/tex]*Tr/4Q)(1+(([tex]\omega_{k}[/tex]-[tex]\omega_{0}[/tex])/[tex]\omega_{c}[/tex])[tex]^{2}[/tex])]
Tr is the cavity round trip time
Q is the cavity Q factor
[tex]\omega_{c}[/tex] is the width of the loss "well"
j[tex]^{2}[/tex]=-1
Homework Equations
equation 2:
v2([tex]\omega_{k}[/tex]-[tex]\omega_{0}[/tex])=exp[-j([tex]\omega_{k}[/tex]-[tex]\omega_{0}[/tex])(T2+T3)].H([tex]\omega_{k}[/tex]).v1([tex]\omega_{k}[/tex]-[tex]\omega_{0}[/tex])
He then says that multiplication of v([tex]\omega_{k}[/tex]-[tex]\omega_{0}[/tex]) by j([tex]\omega_{k}[/tex]-[tex]\omega_{0}[/tex]) corresponds to operation by (d/dt -j[tex]\omega_{0}[/tex]) on v(t)exp(j[tex]\omega_{0}[/tex]*t) which is true.
But then he says that equation 2 in the time domain is:
equation 4:
v2(t)=exp[(-[tex]\omega_{0}[/tex]*Tr/4Q)(1-(1/[tex]\omega_{c}[/tex][tex]^{2}[/tex])(d[tex]^{2}[/tex]/dt[tex]^{2}[/tex]))]v1(t-T2-T3)
the d[tex]^{2}[/tex]/dt[tex]^{2}[/tex] argument origin is not explained.
The Attempt at a Solution
It is maybe a matter of approximation
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