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Schlofster
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I started this https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=313501" a while ago talking about Stephen Hawking's "No Boundary Condition".
I think that I finally got a handle on it, but now Lawrence Krauss has discussed http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=7ImvlS8PLIo" why he thinks that the universe is not closed, but flat, and he says by implication, 'infinite in spatial extent'.
(he also claims to have empirical evidence of the flatness of space-time on the largest scales)
I don't understand how he can reconcile this with the big bang (which he also seems to accept).
If the universe is infinite in spatial extent, at what point did it become infinite, because when the universe was 1 second old, it was not infinitely large (I think that this is the scientifically accepted view).
He is obviously a widely respected physicist, and I am not a physicist, so I expect that I just don't understand what he is saying.
Could anyone explain it to me, or can it not be expressed in natural language?
Thanks,
Schlofster
I think that I finally got a handle on it, but now Lawrence Krauss has discussed http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=7ImvlS8PLIo" why he thinks that the universe is not closed, but flat, and he says by implication, 'infinite in spatial extent'.
(he also claims to have empirical evidence of the flatness of space-time on the largest scales)
I don't understand how he can reconcile this with the big bang (which he also seems to accept).
If the universe is infinite in spatial extent, at what point did it become infinite, because when the universe was 1 second old, it was not infinitely large (I think that this is the scientifically accepted view).
He is obviously a widely respected physicist, and I am not a physicist, so I expect that I just don't understand what he is saying.
Could anyone explain it to me, or can it not be expressed in natural language?
Thanks,
Schlofster
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