- #1
Gavroy
- 235
- 0
In my opinion, there should be a magnetic-dipole-dipole interaction between 2 1s-hydrogen atoms, but i could not find anything that confirms this.
first of all i discovered this equation here:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Magnetic_dipole–dipole_interaction
the potential energy [tex]U = - \frac{ \mu_0 } {4 \pi r_{jk}^3 } \left( 3 (\bold{m}_j \cdot \bold{e}_{jk}) (\bold{m}_k \cdot \bold{e}_{jk}) - \bold{m}_j \cdot \bold{m}_k \right)[/tex]
but an electron in a hydrogen atom with arbitrary l has always a electro magnetic dipole moment(http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electron_magnetic_dipole_moment#Example:_Hydrogen_atom )and therefore this whole term should therefore be different from zero?
so one could evaluate the first term energy correction by using pertubation theory and would probably get a result different from zero. but actually, i guess that somewhere i am completely wrong, cause i never heard anything of such a correction?
first of all i discovered this equation here:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Magnetic_dipole–dipole_interaction
the potential energy [tex]U = - \frac{ \mu_0 } {4 \pi r_{jk}^3 } \left( 3 (\bold{m}_j \cdot \bold{e}_{jk}) (\bold{m}_k \cdot \bold{e}_{jk}) - \bold{m}_j \cdot \bold{m}_k \right)[/tex]
but an electron in a hydrogen atom with arbitrary l has always a electro magnetic dipole moment(http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electron_magnetic_dipole_moment#Example:_Hydrogen_atom )and therefore this whole term should therefore be different from zero?
so one could evaluate the first term energy correction by using pertubation theory and would probably get a result different from zero. but actually, i guess that somewhere i am completely wrong, cause i never heard anything of such a correction?