- #1
cair0
- 15
- 0
i've been wondering why the I for a uniform rod held at one end is [tex] \frac{1}{3}ML^2 [/tex]
i know that it has something to do with the parallel axis theorm, but after finiding the first I, being: [tex] M(\frac{L}{2})^2 [/tex]
I am confused as how to find the I of the meter stick rotating about its parallel axis in the center. Since the center of mass is at the center, and it is being pivioted about the center, it seems there would be no I at all.
can anyone help me out?
i know that it has something to do with the parallel axis theorm, but after finiding the first I, being: [tex] M(\frac{L}{2})^2 [/tex]
I am confused as how to find the I of the meter stick rotating about its parallel axis in the center. Since the center of mass is at the center, and it is being pivioted about the center, it seems there would be no I at all.
can anyone help me out?