- #1
iloc86
- 3
- 0
hi every body, I am doing an analysis of a paper about a tool used in oil well drilling, they use 3D navier stoke equation and by lubrication aproximation the get this
-(1/r) ∂p/∂θ + k (∂( 1/r ∂(rw)/∂r )/∂r )=0
its necesary to get w so i use integral but i obtain an irreal i used mathematica wolfram. but in the paper they obtain
w= 1/2k ∂p/∂θ (ln r - 1/2) + C1 1/2 r + C2/r
somebody could confirm this
-(1/r) ∂p/∂θ + k (∂( 1/r ∂(rw)/∂r )/∂r )=0
its necesary to get w so i use integral but i obtain an irreal i used mathematica wolfram. but in the paper they obtain
w= 1/2k ∂p/∂θ (ln r - 1/2) + C1 1/2 r + C2/r
somebody could confirm this