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vorcil
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http://img197.imageshack.us/img197/2942/assgn3q1.jpg
I took a good crack at this question, could somebody please check?
a)
I thought the shell could be modeled as a conductor with a hole in it,
as there is no electric flux inside a hole of a conductor and the charge of the shell is on the outside of the surface, there is no electric field, so the shell does not contribute to the electric field inside the shell
- this leaves the infinitely long rod!
I'm assuming the rod can be modeled as an infinite line of charge
and the formula for the electric field it creates is
(1/(4pi(epislon nought) ) ) * (2 lavender)/r
-n.b i would go through the proof of this formula but it's so long! and we all know it lol.
- the 2 cancels out 2pi
so the end formula is
lavender / 2pi * episolon nought * r
please check
b) the inner surface charge density? LOL Inner and surface made me automatically think the surface charge density of the inside of the rod is 0
but i know you'll probably want my proof
i know that it is a conducting rod, so all the charges get sent to the surface of the rod and there is no electric field/and flux inside SO my awnser is 0?
(can someone tell me why the charges get sent to the 0? I thought that it would be uniformly charged in a conductor, but at electrostatic equillibrium)
c)(will postsoon, i just need some time to do them)
I took a good crack at this question, could somebody please check?
a)
I thought the shell could be modeled as a conductor with a hole in it,
as there is no electric flux inside a hole of a conductor and the charge of the shell is on the outside of the surface, there is no electric field, so the shell does not contribute to the electric field inside the shell
- this leaves the infinitely long rod!
I'm assuming the rod can be modeled as an infinite line of charge
and the formula for the electric field it creates is
(1/(4pi(epislon nought) ) ) * (2 lavender)/r
-n.b i would go through the proof of this formula but it's so long! and we all know it lol.
- the 2 cancels out 2pi
so the end formula is
lavender / 2pi * episolon nought * r
please check
b) the inner surface charge density? LOL Inner and surface made me automatically think the surface charge density of the inside of the rod is 0
but i know you'll probably want my proof
i know that it is a conducting rod, so all the charges get sent to the surface of the rod and there is no electric field/and flux inside SO my awnser is 0?
(can someone tell me why the charges get sent to the 0? I thought that it would be uniformly charged in a conductor, but at electrostatic equillibrium)
c)(will postsoon, i just need some time to do them)
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