- #1
Lamarr
- 52
- 1
I'm quite confused on this.
According to Lorentz's ether theory, he used the immobile stationary ether as an absolute frame of reference.
In that case, why would the Lorentz transforms be required, since there are no relative reference frames?
According to Lorentz's ether theory, he used the immobile stationary ether as an absolute frame of reference.
In that case, why would the Lorentz transforms be required, since there are no relative reference frames?