Why Does the Bloch Sphere Use Theta Over Two for Qubit Representation?

  • Thread starter Thread starter maverick280857
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Bloch sphere Sphere
maverick280857
Messages
1,774
Reaction score
5
I am reading Quantum Computation and Quantum Information by Nelson and Chuang myself and came across the Bloch Sphere representation of a quibit on page 15 (equation 1.4) as:

|\psi> = \cos\frac{\theta}{2} |0> + e^{i\psi}\sin\frac{\theta}{2} |1>

I have two questions:

1. What is the motivation behind such a representation (other than the fact that the sum of the squares of the coefficients of |0> and |1> equals 1)?

2. Why use \theta/2 rather than \theta?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
maverick280857 said:
1. What is the motivation behind such a representation (other than the fact that the sum of the squares of the coefficients of |0> and |1> equals 1)?
It really is just spherical coordinates.

I suppose the fact that the parameter space is decomposed into a part that affects measurements in done this basis (\theta) and a part that does not (\psi) is an extra source of convenience.


2. Why use \theta/2 rather than \theta?
Aesthetic reasons. For example, look at expectation calculations. Or maybe the author already gave \theta a meaning, so he has to use this to be consistent.
 
Last edited:
Hurkyl said:
It really is just spherical coordinates.

Yes, I thought so too, that's why I asked about \theta/2. Thanks.
 
Insights auto threads is broken atm, so I'm manually creating these for new Insight articles. In her YouTube video Bell’s Theorem Experiments on Entangled Photons, Dr. Fugate shows how polarization-entangled photons violate Bell’s inequality. In this Insight, I will use quantum information theory to explain why such entangled photon-polarization qubits violate the version of Bell’s inequality due to John Clauser, Michael Horne, Abner Shimony, and Richard Holt known as the...
Not an expert in QM. AFAIK, Schrödinger's equation is quite different from the classical wave equation. The former is an equation for the dynamics of the state of a (quantum?) system, the latter is an equation for the dynamics of a (classical) degree of freedom. As a matter of fact, Schrödinger's equation is first order in time derivatives, while the classical wave equation is second order. But, AFAIK, Schrödinger's equation is a wave equation; only its interpretation makes it non-classical...
I am not sure if this falls under classical physics or quantum physics or somewhere else (so feel free to put it in the right section), but is there any micro state of the universe one can think of which if evolved under the current laws of nature, inevitably results in outcomes such as a table levitating? That example is just a random one I decided to choose but I'm really asking about any event that would seem like a "miracle" to the ordinary person (i.e. any event that doesn't seem to...
Back
Top