|Feb5-09, 05:42 AM||#1|
i might be making it up, but i am confused.
can we say:
[tex]x\equiv[/tex]2 (mod k)
[tex]x\equiv[/tex]2 (mod m)
[tex]x\equiv[/tex]2 (mod km) by km i mean k multiplied by m.
if not, what is the result? or can it be found?
thank you in advance.
|Feb5-09, 05:58 AM||#2|
x=2(mod 4) and x=2(mod 8) but x=10(mod 32)
In general, if you have something mod m and something mod k, and want to discuss what happens mod mk, then you need a condition on m and k being coprime, or something similar.
|Feb5-09, 06:30 AM||#3|
thank you for your answer.
i think i found sth:
say (k,m) = 1
x=a (mod k)
x=a (mod m)
x=kt+a and x=my+a
x-a=0 (mod km)
x=a (mod km)
it is valid, isnt it? any counterexamples?
|Feb5-09, 12:33 PM||#4|
That looks pretty good to me
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