atat1tata
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My book (an old copy of Halliday-Resnick) gives a proof for the fact that the wave velocity is constant in 1-dimensional transversal elastic waves, but it says nothing about other types of waves. Basically it makes a tacit assumption that all waves have constant velocity.
However it proves that the amplitude of a circular wave (a ripple in water) decreases proportionally to \frac{1}{r^2}. I think that it assumes that the wave velocity is constant.
From another point of view if one uses cowishly the relation v^2 = \frac{T}{\mu} one could say that, at least for an elastic circular wave, \mu is proportional to r and the wave velocity should vary.
As you can see I'm a bit confused and I would like to ask if someone could at least provide me with a proof of why the wave velocity is constant in water waves, 2- and 3-dimensional elastic waves and acoustic waves.
PS: I would be extremely grateful if someone could correct my English where I made mistakes in the language
However it proves that the amplitude of a circular wave (a ripple in water) decreases proportionally to \frac{1}{r^2}. I think that it assumes that the wave velocity is constant.
From another point of view if one uses cowishly the relation v^2 = \frac{T}{\mu} one could say that, at least for an elastic circular wave, \mu is proportional to r and the wave velocity should vary.
As you can see I'm a bit confused and I would like to ask if someone could at least provide me with a proof of why the wave velocity is constant in water waves, 2- and 3-dimensional elastic waves and acoustic waves.
PS: I would be extremely grateful if someone could correct my English where I made mistakes in the language
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