- #1
tyco05
- 161
- 0
Hey kids,
The question I'm having trouble with (this time) is as follows:
Show that the Fermi-Dirac distribution function,
[tex] f_{FD}(E)=\frac{1}{e^{(\frac{E-E_f}{kT})}+1} [/tex]
Has the following functional form at T= 0K
(see attachment)
Now, the first thing that screamed at me was the division by T in the exponential bit. If T=0, what is going on!?
The obvious things are:
E>Ef then f(E) = 0
and
E<Ef then f(E) = 1.
I'm just really confused at how I can show that the function has that form at T=0K
Any ideas?
Cheers
The question I'm having trouble with (this time) is as follows:
Show that the Fermi-Dirac distribution function,
[tex] f_{FD}(E)=\frac{1}{e^{(\frac{E-E_f}{kT})}+1} [/tex]
Has the following functional form at T= 0K
(see attachment)
Now, the first thing that screamed at me was the division by T in the exponential bit. If T=0, what is going on!?
The obvious things are:
E>Ef then f(E) = 0
and
E<Ef then f(E) = 1.
I'm just really confused at how I can show that the function has that form at T=0K
Any ideas?
Cheers