Solve Definite Integrals: 1/(1+cosx)dx from 0 to pi/2

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating the definite integral of the function 1/(1+cos(x)) from 0 to π/2. Participants are exploring various methods and identities related to trigonometric integrals.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants suggest using trigonometric identities, such as the relation involving cos²(x/2), to simplify the integral. Some explore multiplying the numerator and denominator by (1-cos(x)) to transform the expression. Others discuss the implications of approaching limits and the behavior of the function as it nears the boundaries of integration.

Discussion Status

There is an ongoing exploration of different approaches to the integral, with some participants expressing uncertainty about the convergence of the integral and the behavior of the function at the limits. Hints and suggestions have been provided, but no consensus has been reached regarding the final evaluation of the integral.

Contextual Notes

Participants note potential issues with divergence as the integral approaches the limits, particularly at π/2 and 0, raising questions about the existence of a definite area under the curve.

Leaping antalope
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can anyone help me with this problem...
the integral from 0 to half pi: 1/(1+cosx)dx...
Thanks...
 
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Hint use the relation:
[tex]\cos^{2}(\frac{x}{2})=\frac{1+\cos(x)}{2}[/tex]
 
from my perspective, that problem would be very hard to solve without changing it somehow. try multiplying the top and bottom by (1-cos x) and see what happens. remember that sin^2 x + cos^2 x = 1.

that is the method i used, but it did require me to use the reduction formula on one of the integrals. hopefully that helps, thought it may not be the inteded method.
 
so 1/(1+cosx)=(1-cosx)/(1-cos^2x)=(1-cosx)/sin^2x=(1/sin^2x)-(cosx/sin^2x)...
Aha~now i get it
the integration of 1/sin^2x is -cotx, and cosx/sin^2x=cosx*sin^(-2)x, and the integral of this is -1/sinx
so the integration of 1/(1+cosx) is -cotx+1/sinx, but now i have a problem, cot(half pi) does not exist...
help still needed...
 
Leaping antalope said:
so 1/(1+cosx)=(1-cosx)/(1-cos^2x)=(1-cosx)/sin^2x=(1/sin^2x)-(cosx/sin^2x)...
Aha~now i get it
the integration of 1/sin^2x is -cotx, and cosx/sin^2x=cosx*sin^(-2)x, and the integral of this is -1/sinx
so the integration of 1/(1+cosx) is -cotx+1/sinx, but now i have a problem, cot(half pi) does not exist...
help still needed...

i forgot that the derivative of cot is -csc^2. you don't need the reduction formula after all! i worked this out and i got

1/sin x - cot x
or
1/sin x - cos x/sin x

the problem is when it approaches zero, not pi/2. to me it looks like this is divergent, thus there is no definant area (as it approaches zero from the right, 1/sin x approaches infinity).

maybe i did something wrong, but the math looks correct. as a forewarning I'm just finishing the last chapter in calc 2 in college, so I'm not a math guru.

edit: i don't remember if limit laws dictate that you could say infinity minus infinity equals a total of zero. that could be it's been almost a year since i took calc 1. if so, you'd have (1-0)-(infinity - infinity = 0) = 1 unit^2.

i don't know when i get problems wrong on tests its usually due to magic algebra, that could be a case of it right there. i'd look it up but i need to finish writing up my lab for this evening.
 
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The answer is 1. Or maybe we should convert (1/sin^2x)-(cosx/sin^2x) so that we can substitute half pi and 0 in it...not sure...
 
Leaping antalope said:
The answer is 1. Or maybe we should convert (1/sin^2x)-(cosx/sin^2x) so that we can substitute half pi and 0 in it...not sure...

well, sin of 0 is 0, so either way you're dividing both by zero. the only thing i can figure out is that you do it as an improper integral and the infinities cancel each other.
 
arildno said:
Hint use the relation:
[tex]\cos^{2}(\frac{x}{2})=\frac{1+\cos(x)}{2}[/tex]

I suggest you use the advice of arildno. It will be the best way to solve this.

[tex]\int\frac{2}{\cos(x)+1}*dx = \int\frac{1}{\cos^{2}(\frac{x}{2})} * dx[/tex]

and you know that [tex]dx = 2*d(\frac{x}{2})[/tex]
and
[tex]\int\frac{1}{\cos^{2}(x)} = \tan(x)[/tex]

regards
marlon
 
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marlon said:
I suggest you use the advice of arildno. It will be the best way to solve this.

[tex]\int\frac{2}{\cos(x)+1}*dx = \int\frac{1}{\cos^{2}(\frac{x}{2})} * dx[/tex]

and you know that [tex]dx = 2*d(\frac{x}{2})[/tex]
and
[tex]\int\frac{1}{\cos^{2}(x)} = \tan(x)[/tex]

regards
marlon

that is clever, i didn't remember that identity. but you aren't finished. remember that the integral is from 0 to pi/2. under that integral the function is divergent, thus the area doesn't exist. right? (lim t---> pi/2 [tan x] from 0 to t) sin x /cos x -- as x approaches pi/2, thus cos x = 0, bad things happen.

also divergent by relation to 1/cos x isn't it?

if anyone has a certain answer, please elucidate! (no mathmatica at home :( )
 
  • #10
marlon said:
I suggest you use the advice of arildno. It will be the best way to solve this.

[tex]\int\frac{2}{\cos(x)+1}*dx = \int\frac{1}{\cos^{2}(\frac{x}{2})} * dx[/tex]

and you know that [tex]dx = 2*d(\frac{x}{2})[/tex]
and
[tex]\int\frac{1}{\cos^{2}(x)} = \tan(x)[/tex]

regards
marlon

edit: nevermind, i thought you were saying the answer was tan x. disregard this and above message!
 
Last edited:

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