- #1
Ted123
- 446
- 0
How would you show that if [itex]X[/itex] is a non-empty set and [itex]A\subseteq X[/itex] then [itex]A[/itex] and [itex]A^c[/itex] have the same boundary?
The definition is [itex]x\in \partial A \iff [/itex] there exists [itex]r>0[/itex] such that the open ball [itex]B(x,r)[/itex] intersects both [itex]A[/itex] and [itex]A^c[/itex]
but this is precisely the statement that [itex]x\in \partial A^c[/itex]!
The definition is [itex]x\in \partial A \iff [/itex] there exists [itex]r>0[/itex] such that the open ball [itex]B(x,r)[/itex] intersects both [itex]A[/itex] and [itex]A^c[/itex]
but this is precisely the statement that [itex]x\in \partial A^c[/itex]!