- #1
Michael Lin
- 11
- 0
Hi All,
From electromagnetic theories, with the Lorentz gauge condition for the magnetic vector potential, I get the following wave equation:
1/csquared * d2A/dt2 + del2 A= u0 j.
in some literatures, they ignored the d2A/dt2 term and I don't know why they can do that. Is it becasue they assumed some quasi-stationary condition on the E field created by the magnetic field?
This simplication leads to a big simplification in which they can solve it as a Poisson Equation. I just want to know why they can ignore that term.
Thanks,
Micahel
From electromagnetic theories, with the Lorentz gauge condition for the magnetic vector potential, I get the following wave equation:
1/csquared * d2A/dt2 + del2 A= u0 j.
in some literatures, they ignored the d2A/dt2 term and I don't know why they can do that. Is it becasue they assumed some quasi-stationary condition on the E field created by the magnetic field?
This simplication leads to a big simplification in which they can solve it as a Poisson Equation. I just want to know why they can ignore that term.
Thanks,
Micahel