Distance between two non parallel lines

In summary: If so, then the answer is essentially correct. The only thing that could be improved is the explanation of why the distance is the length of the projection. In summary, the formula for the distance between two non parallel lines in three dimensions is given by the projection of the vector between two random points on the lines onto the unit perpendicular vector to the plane containing the lines. This is found by taking the dot product of the vector between the points and the cross product of the direction vectors of the lines, and dividing by the magnitude of the cross product. The minimum distance between two skew lines in ##\mathbb R^3## is 0, as they lie in a plane, while in spherical geometry, all parallel lines intersect at the poles
  • #1
mathmari
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Hey! :eek:

Using vector methods show that the distance between two non parallel lines $l_1$ and $l_2$ is given by $$d=\frac{|(\overrightarrow{v}_1 - \overrightarrow{v}_2) \cdot (\overrightarrow{ a}_1 \times \overrightarrow{a}_2)|}{||\overrightarrow{a}_1 \times \overrightarrow{a}_2||}$$ where $\vec{v}_1$ and $\vec{v}_2$ are random points of $l_1$ and $l_2$ respectively, and $\vec{a}_1$ and $\vec{a}_2$ are the directions of $l_1$ and $l_2$.

HINT:
We consider the plane that contains $l_1$ and is parallel to $l_2$. Show that $\frac{\vec{a}_1 \times \vec{a}_2}{\|\vec{a}_1 \times \vec{a}_2\|}$ is unit perpendicular to that plane. Then take the projection of $\vec{v}_2-\vec{v}_1$ to that perpendicular direction.
I have done the following: We consider the plane that contains $l_1$ and is parallel to $l_2$. That means that the plane passes through the point $\overrightarrow{v}_1$ and has as parallel vector the vector $\overrightarrow{a}$.

To find the distance between the two lines, we have to find the distance between the points $\overrightarrow{v}_1$ and $\overrightarrow{v}_2$.

The vectors $\overrightarrow{a}_1$ and $\overrightarrow{a}_2$ produce the plane, so the vector $\overrightarrow{a}_1 \times \overrightarrow{a}_2$ is perpendicular to the plane.

So, the unit perpendicular vector to the plane is $\frac{\overrightarrow{a}_1 \times \overrightarrow{a}_2}{||\overrightarrow{a}_1 \times \overrightarrow{a}_2||}$.

A vector from the plane to the point $\overrightarrow{v}_2$ is $\overrightarrow{v}_2-\overrightarrow{v}_1$.

The distance that we are looking for the length of the projection of this vector onto the normal vector to the plane.

So, $$d=\frac{|(\overrightarrow{v}_1 - \overrightarrow{v}_2) \cdot (\overrightarrow{ a}_1 \times \overrightarrow{a}_2)|}{||\overrightarrow{a}_1 \times \overrightarrow{a}_2||}$$
Is this correct?? (Wondering) Could I improve something at the formulation?? (Wondering)
 
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  • #2
The formulation of the question is incomplete at best. If the two lines lie in a plane and they are not parallel, the minimum distance is 0 (by definition). And in spherical geometry all parallel lines meet at the poles.
 
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  • #3
I'm guessing that the intent here is to find the distance between two skew lines in ##\mathbb R^3##.
 
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1. What is the formula for finding the distance between two non-parallel lines?

The formula for finding the distance between two non-parallel lines is the shortest distance between any two points on the two lines. This can be calculated by taking the perpendicular distance between the two lines. The formula for this is:
d = |(Ax + By + C)| / √(A^2 + B^2)

2. Can the distance between two non-parallel lines be negative?

No, the distance between two non-parallel lines cannot be negative. Distance is always a positive value, representing the absolute value of the perpendicular distance between the two lines.

3. How do you determine if two non-parallel lines are equidistant?

Two non-parallel lines are equidistant if there exists a point on one line that is equidistant from both lines. This point can be found by setting the equations of the two lines equal to each other and solving for the variable. If a solution exists, the lines are equidistant.

4. Can the distance between two non-parallel lines be zero?

Yes, the distance between two non-parallel lines can be zero. This would occur when the two lines intersect or when they are coincident (i.e. they are the same line).

5. How is the distance between two non-parallel lines related to the angle between them?

The distance between two non-parallel lines is inversely proportional to the angle between them. This means that as the angle between the lines increases, the distance between them decreases, and vice versa. This relationship can be seen in the formula for finding the distance between two lines, where the cosine of the angle between the lines is in the denominator.

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