- #1
Physics_Teacher
For example, Brian Greene says in The Elegant Universe regarding special relativity and train moving with constant velocity relative to platform: By the principle of relativity or first postulate, "there is no way for an observer on this train to detect any influence of the train's motion. But if the light clock and Rolex were to fall out of synchronization, this would be a noticeable influence indeed. [So] the Rolex must slow down in exactly the same way that the light clock does."
The first postulate states that the laws of physics are the same in all inertial frames of reference. The train passenger can look out the window and conclude that train is moving relative to platform (noting distance changing). The first postulate is from Galilean relativity. It does imply that one cannot have experiments that detect absolute motion. But in arguments, such as in above book, is it not being extended to imply that one cannot have experiments that detect Relative motion? We know from experience that we CAN detect Relative motion by multiple methods, so why could such non-matching clocks not be just another method.
Note: I am asking ONLY in reference to *First Postulate being violated* if different clocks gave different time dilation, and use of THAT reasoning ALONE to conclude that all clocks must show the same time dilation. (I am aware of the Lorentz transformations and their derivation which show that all clocks have to give same time dilation).
The first postulate states that the laws of physics are the same in all inertial frames of reference. The train passenger can look out the window and conclude that train is moving relative to platform (noting distance changing). The first postulate is from Galilean relativity. It does imply that one cannot have experiments that detect absolute motion. But in arguments, such as in above book, is it not being extended to imply that one cannot have experiments that detect Relative motion? We know from experience that we CAN detect Relative motion by multiple methods, so why could such non-matching clocks not be just another method.
Note: I am asking ONLY in reference to *First Postulate being violated* if different clocks gave different time dilation, and use of THAT reasoning ALONE to conclude that all clocks must show the same time dilation. (I am aware of the Lorentz transformations and their derivation which show that all clocks have to give same time dilation).