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Greetings…
I requested some books that deals with the different interpretations of QM almost a year ago and I read lots of them. My favourite was Laloe's (so whoever recommended it, extra thanks for you).
I noticed something interesting in the Bohmian mechanism, a common misconception if I may say: De Broglie-Bohm interpretation is not always rigidly deterministic, by that I mean not all of the laws are dynamic (one-valued), there is some statistical (probabilistic) laws [e.g. Quantum Equilibrium]. And these statistical laws exist objectively (not merely our ignorance as Laplace proposed). This was made clear in Bohm's book Causality and Modern Physics as well as in Vigier's work.
Now, the stochastic interpretation proposed by Edward Nelson (with Fényes and de La Peña-Auerbach) is becoming indistinguishable from De Broglie-Bohm-Vigier's, at least to me. The concepts are almost the same (Hidden Variables, Statistical Nature, No "real" wave collapse, etc...) so it would be really helpful if someone helps me out distinguish at least the main conceptual differences between the two interpretations.
Thanks in advance.
Note: I am a medical student who is interested in philosophy (in this case, the philosophy of science). So if the question seems very naïve then excuse me, it is not my "speciality".
I requested some books that deals with the different interpretations of QM almost a year ago and I read lots of them. My favourite was Laloe's (so whoever recommended it, extra thanks for you).
I noticed something interesting in the Bohmian mechanism, a common misconception if I may say: De Broglie-Bohm interpretation is not always rigidly deterministic, by that I mean not all of the laws are dynamic (one-valued), there is some statistical (probabilistic) laws [e.g. Quantum Equilibrium]. And these statistical laws exist objectively (not merely our ignorance as Laplace proposed). This was made clear in Bohm's book Causality and Modern Physics as well as in Vigier's work.
Now, the stochastic interpretation proposed by Edward Nelson (with Fényes and de La Peña-Auerbach) is becoming indistinguishable from De Broglie-Bohm-Vigier's, at least to me. The concepts are almost the same (Hidden Variables, Statistical Nature, No "real" wave collapse, etc...) so it would be really helpful if someone helps me out distinguish at least the main conceptual differences between the two interpretations.
Thanks in advance.
Note: I am a medical student who is interested in philosophy (in this case, the philosophy of science). So if the question seems very naïve then excuse me, it is not my "speciality".
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