- #1
DavideGenoa
- 155
- 5
Dear friends, I read that, if ##A## is a bounded linear operator transforming -I think that such a terminology implies that ##A## is surjective because if ##B=A## and ##A## weren't surjective, that would be a counterexample to the theorem; please correct me if I'm wrong- a Banach space ##E## into a Banach space ##E_1##, there is a constant ##\alpha>0## such that, if ##B\in\mathscr{L}(E,E_1)## is a continuous linear operator defined in ##E## and ##\|A-B\|<\alpha##, then ##B## is surjective.
I thought I could use the Banach contraction principle, but I get nothing...
##\infty## thanks for any help!
I thought I could use the Banach contraction principle, but I get nothing...
##\infty## thanks for any help!
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